There is a piece of residential property I would like to purchase in a nearby town. The owner, a lady, recently passed away and did not leave a will. She never divorced and only had one daughter. The surviving spouse and daughter both want to sell the property at a good price. Here in Texas, 100% of the property goes to the husband under intestate succession. There is a small loan on the property. I have spoken to the finance company and they have no problem if I take over the payments. The husband and daughter are willing to walk away with a small amount of money. How would I work this investment. Are “subject to” agreements still in use? I have been out of the game for a while but in 2005 when I first joined this wonderful forum, I was able to purchase two very expensive homes using “subject to” contracts. Any suggestions would be greatly appreciated.