Posted by michaela-ATL on February 16, 2003 at 08:54:08:
Just wondering. My neighbor passed away a month ago and his family is now selling his house. He was in the hospital for about a month, before he died. No insurance - medicaid. His wife died 2 years ago - medicaid. The daughter told me, that they’re planning on collecting all of his medicaid bills and her brother-in-law is taking care of things. I’m kind of suspecting, that they might not tell medicaid about the house, but even if they do and do pay the hospital bills with the proceeds of the house, can the deceased wife’s medicaid bills end up as liens on the house, even though she wasn’t on the deed? I’m sure when she was in the hospital, her husband had to sign something, that they didn’t have any major assets, in order for medicaid to have paid the bills - is that right? He actually owns 2 houses, but the other one was still in the deceased mother’s name and he was in the process of getting it into his name when he died.
I don’t want the house - they’re asking way too much and there’re a ton of young investors crawling around over there, that don’t know how much it costs to renovate an old victorian to top condition. They’re all calling me, because i have a ‘for sale’ sign in my yard, and ask me about that house. I’m just curious to find out about that medicaid thing. I expect whoever is going to buy the house, might possibly get some potential problems in the future? I think medicaid can put liens on the property for up to 5 years, right?
Both houses are probably worth about 90k each, but of course, the family is asking a whole lot more and i know they’ll find investors, that’ll pay the price.
Would appreciate any comments from people, that have dealt with medicaid. I’d really love to know what kind of risk is involved for someone buying one of those houses.
Michaela