Title Issue & Partition Sales - Posted by JT-IN
Posted by JT-IN on December 18, 2002 at 20:49:19:
Devaki:
Your statement: “I already have a contract with this woman to buy her property for $ 31,500”
How can this gal sell you what she doesn’t own…? She/they hold title in Tenants in Common. She is a part owner, and can only speak for her share she owns. Everyone that has a share of the ownership, including that bil who is MIA, should have signed the contract to purchase. Lacking all parties signature, the document you have has no value. Again, the only thing that the Lady you are dealing with can sell you is her interest.
Admitedly, I do not have all the details here, and am going on some assumptions here, so thismay not be exactly right-on.
Your statement: “if I have already paid the share to the living heirs”.
Don’t tell here that you have already signed sealed and delivered on the property… You have paid her at closing…? the $ 31,500…? I, yi, yi. This would not be good, because if you did, you have a clouded title, and really do need help.
You may also ask the Atty about a “quiet title” action, in order to clear the title. This probably will not work but it is worth a try, especially if you have already paid the 31.5K. Let me also ask you, assuming you did close on and pay for the property already… Did you have an Atty represent you in this transaction…? Did you attempt to get title insurance…?
Now, on to the Partition Sale… How can the court auction my property…? What a partition sale is, when there are numerous owners, that usually do not agree upon the disposition of the property, it will be ordered sold, in order to settle the dispute. This is one of the problems with RE, you can’t tear it in half and give part to each, so you financially dispose of it, and then divide the proceeds. So in a partition sale, the property usually must sell at public auction; Sheriff Sale, as it is a court ordered sale. It must be advertised and sell to the highest bidder. That could be you, me or the gatekeeper. When it is over, the proceeds will be divided between the property owners…on title. In this case, if you have acquired 2/3rds of the property, and lets say you were the highest bidder and it sold for 33K, you could simply pay 11K to the bil, and be done with it, getting clear title. Or lets say I bought it for 33K, then you would receive 22K, and the bil would get 11K, and I get the clear deed. Hopefully, this makes some sense.
Post any question you have concerning what part you may not understand. OK, feel free to post your displeasure with the parts you do not like as well. Unfortunately, the parts you do not like are not subject to change… Sorry.
Just the way that I view things…
JT-IN