Posted by John Merchant on May 17, 2010 at 23:26:35:
Since it costs something to execute on a J it’s general practice to “abstract” it in RE recorder’s office then wait until T Co requires its pmt so a clear title can be delivered on that RE.
When J debtor tries to deliver clear title on any RE he owns in his own name (and same name J is in) the T Co involved will then require it be paid off.
I am looking at a property that is being lost to taxes.
Title search shows an individual judgment against the owner.
I was confused on one issue. Normally a judgment would need to be paid to convey clear title. If title ins isn’t purchased at this time and the person transfers the property via warrantee deed (paid $100.) What rights does the owner of the judgment have since it is a document against a person and is not a lien or mortgage on the house?
The person the judgment is against now lives in a different county and owns property in a different county.