Posted by John Merchant on February 26, 2009 at 16:59:19:
Yes, escrow should have obtained Seller’s deed to land and title to Mobile if it was still “personal” property; they then should have applied your purchase price money to S’s paying off his MH loan.
Then they were supposed to record the deed and it couldn’t have been recorded sans the S’s notarized signature.
Escrow would have been legally liable to you if they failed to get S’s signed and notarized deed, etc.
But if you’ve waited 9 years you’re probably beyond the statute of limitations and likely it’s too late to sue that escrow co.
Is the Sellers signature required at closing? - Posted by Michael
Posted by Michael on February 26, 2009 at 16:53:49:
I had a closing about 9 years ago on a land/manufactured home and when I received the final paperwork from the title company there was no sellers signature on the forms. Is this a legal contract? Also the seller promised to pay my single wide off and did not. In return I was forced to file bankruptcy on the single wide because of this. The seller went bankrupt right after my deal was closed. I have asked for copies of the closing documents from the 3rd mortgage company that had the contract and they told me they didn’t have it.