Posted by River City on April 09, 2006 at 06:59:24:
I am not an attorney, however, I would think not on both of these, unless there is documentation to prove otherwise. Generally, an implied easement is for purposes of functional access, not for allowing an animal to graze. You could “lease” a portion of the property for the animal’s use if you wanted. Like I said, I am not an attorney, so this is just my opinion.
implied easement or profit a prendre? - Posted by jrtapiajr
Posted by jrtapiajr on April 07, 2006 at 22:54:37:
I’m in the process of buying a parcel of land, and I’m currently working on an offer. However, it has come to my attention that the owner lets his neighbor’s horse come onto the property to graze. I would like to know if the conduct can be construed as a valid express or implied
easement? In addition, does the fact that the horse grazes (i.e. removes grass) consitute a valid express and/or implied profit-a-prendre?