Posted by Natalie-VA on February 10, 2006 at 16:10:01:
Tom,
I’m no attorney. It seems as if the seller is discriminating against buyers who only want one of the properties. It might be stupid, but not illegal.
Now, if they discriminated against someone who is in a protected class, there may be an issue.
–Natalie
ILLEGAL TERM? - Posted by tom
Posted by tom on February 01, 2006 at 19:22:58:
In my local MLS I saw a listing for a 5 acre parcel for $120,000. I contacted the agent, looked at it, made a full- price cash offer, no contingencies. The agent then tells me that the listing is conditioned on my purchasing an adjoining parcel, owned by a different party, and having a different MLS listing for $600,000. They are friends and the owner of my parcel would like to see the other parcel and hers purchased together. I, on the other hand, have no desire to purchase the $600,000 property. Both parcels have this condition on the MLS website.
My question is: Is this condition legal? It strikes me that my $120,000 is as good as anyone’s. I have met the seller’s price and I have asked for no contingencies. It seems that a seller could screen people, rejecting people with this condition, then dropping the condition when the “right person” makes the same offer.