Does a contingientcy in a contract go both ways? Can a contingient clause that is implied to protect the buyer be used by the seller to escape? For instance…if the clause says “subject to the seller purchasing an easement” implied (but not stated) for the benefit of the buyer,can the seller use this same contingientcy to keep from selling if the easement is not obtainable? Or does the buyer have specific control and can waive the contingientcy and force seller to sell? In this case, seller wants to keep property.
Posted by River City on August 22, 2006 at 12:44:04:
The contract should indicate what happens in the case that a contingency clause cannot be met. Some contracts state that if the contingency “cannot” be met by the seller, the purchaser can either accept the property without the contingency being met, or void the agreement.
Posted by Chris TX on August 22, 2006 at 09:34:52:
Im neither…I want to purchase the property from the seller (who wants me to have it) but she has to get out of the contract she is in. Her real estate co strung her out on a flimsy deal, waited till she got behind on her note, then the broker made a rediculously low offer, (she took it under pressure from being behind on pmts)…
Not looking for exit strategy advice just want to know if a contingiency can be upheld by either party.