Posted by John Merchant on June 16, 2004 at 07:48:35:
I’d guess no title co. would be willing to go on the line, stating that he has any title to speak of…unless he were to file a suit & get some kind of court judgment stating that he does now have title.
Would YOU be willing to pay good money for his title?
Sounds moot because I suspect the county will sell it for taxes, and wiping out any & all claims in the process.
Common Law Property Rights in Texas? - Posted by Steve Catlett
Posted by Steve Catlett on June 14, 2004 at 11:43:14:
A woman owned a single family residential property in Texas free and clear of mortgage or other incumberance. She was single and had never been married. She befriended a homeless man who moved into the house with her and lived in the house for a period of more than a year. Although his name was not on any of the utility bills or governmental agency taxes and paperwork pertaining to the property, it is assumed that he helped pay something toward the maintanence of the residence.
Then the woman died suddenly and she had no children, siblings, or other relatives to make a claim on the ownership of the property. The man continued to live in the house and pay necessary bills for a long period of time until he fell behind $6000 on the property taxes, at which point he wanted to get the property in his name, sell it, pay off the taxes, keep the profit, and find another place to live.
The question is: it there any way he can gain title to the property so that he can sell it?
Re: Common Law Property Rights in Texas? - Posted by Beatrice Holguin
Posted by Beatrice Holguin on November 11, 2004 at 19:18:12:
I lived with my “common law” husband for 4 years. During this time I have been the sole provider for my mobile home, yet it is under his mother’s name. All payments have been made with checks under my bank account. Now he wants to evict me- Do I have any rights? Please help!