Posted by JT-IN on March 07, 2007 at 21:57:07:
Dave:
Going back to the original posters scenario… He was buying at clearly 50% or less of a bona-fide FMV. Whenever you have numbers like that, if a Lender is challenging you on a massaged purchase price, and you are NOT raising the loan amount over what you would otherwise be borrowing had you not raised the price, then you are dealing with the wrong lender. It is that simple.
e.g 125K purchase price, and property is worth 250K. You would ordinarily being buying at 125K, say you are putting down 20%, or 25K, with loan amount of 100K. Now you want to do the same deal, borrowing the same 100K, and increase the purchase price to 200K, showing a 75K credit from seller to buyer on the HUD… As long as you can pull the appraisal for the 200K, or more, and you are still borrowing the 100K, (not trying to raise the loan amount as most folks would), there should be NO issue. I can clearly see the issue when you try to pay the 125K, and raise the price to 200K and then finacne 80% of the 200K, and loan amt of 160K… BuZZ, BuZZ. Outta the game.
Again, if your lender is busting you on the above scenario with the 100K loan amount and a property that is clearly worth 200K+, then you are dealing with the wrong financial folks. My leaning is always to deal with commercial lenders who are doing proprietary lending, and little blips like the one you raise are simply non-issues.
Anyway, so much for that dead dog… LOL Hopefully you can use the technique in the future and legally hide some of the fat profit from your buyers lender… Gleem.
JT-IN