Posted by Bill H on August 19, 2004 at 12:38:25:
Possibly by “Adverse Possession”…If you have met the requirements of the State of Texas…check with a good real estate attorney and title company.
Good Luck,
Bill H
Paying Taxes and Ownership - Posted by Jane
Posted by Jane on August 19, 2004 at 12:06:30:
My Mother-in-law inherited 21 acres of land in Texas in 1981. She sold all but 2 acres which my husband and I bought 1 acre and have a deed of title to, but she put the 2 acres in our name on the taxes which we have paid (and used) the last 23 years. Do we have any claim to the acre that is directly behind ours?