Posted by Rob Ricker on August 22, 2004 at 21:54:01:
I doubt they will be able to assume the mortgage without qulifying first, but you will not violate the due-on-sale by deeding it to them. Passing ownership to children is one exception to the DOS. basically, they’d own the house, but the mortgage would still be in your name (unless they got qualified through the lender)
P.S. This is not legal advise, and I’m not a lawyer. just another investor trying to give you an honest answer to your question to the best of my ability (how’s that for a disclaimer!)