Sorry, Natalie. We get so many requests of how to “screw” the lender, that most of us thought this was another one of those cases. Anyway, you looked at this objectively and presented a very good response.
I’m looking to buy a 4 family investment property.
Asking price is 400K. What I?m trying to do is find a way not to put 20% down payment.
So I gave an offer for 450K with 50K as repair credit to the buyer at a closing. This way my mortgage will be 80% or 360K against sale price of 450K and not 320K against sale price 400K. Property will be cash flow positive even with 100% financing.
Is this a legal approach or should I consider something else.
Thank you in advance for all advices
Mike
You’ve gotten some interesting answers. John summed it up pretty well, but let me reiterate: as long as the lender knows what you are doing, it’s all disclosed on the HUD and the appraisal legitimately comes in at or above the sales price, you are fine.
If the appraisal is falsely inflated or you don’t disclose something to the lender, then you’ve got a problem.
Of course this is illegal. Any time you say a mortgage transaction is different than it actually is, it is illegal. This is perpetrating fraud against the lender and is punishable by fines and imprisonment. Read the fine print on the mortgage loan application.