Re: If this were a perfect world… - Posted by JohnBoy
Posted by JohnBoy on July 28, 2001 at 01:21:16:
I think you missed my point I was trying to make.
This isn’t about the sellers, it’s about the feds coming down on you.
Sure, the sellers can still cry foul. Sure, it doesn’t matter that you gave them recourse, you still are obligated to pay. Just the same as any buyer is obligated to pay on any mortgage…even if they default.
The sellers could all cry foul, but what ever they cry, it’s a civil matter that would have to be dealt with in a civil case…not a criminal case.
We can protect ourself from civil cases by using corps and LLC’s. Those won’t protect you in criminal cases.
The purpose of giving the seller recourse isn’t so the seller couldn’t cry foul, it’s to add protection to prevent some hungry prosecutor crying foul and trying to bring criminal charges against you. By not giving the seller ANY recourse of any kind by taking their property and leaving them liable for the loan on a property you now own could have potential legal problems pertaining to being charged with a criminal offense.
If you’ve been following along then you read where this has already happened to someone and they ended up serving 16 months in a federal prision.
The question is, if the sellers had some form of recourse to get the property back, would this person have ever been charged with anything or not? I don’t know, but in my opinion it would certainly add to your defense in not making you out to look like someone who was running around scamming people out of their homes when they were down on their luck.
It has nothing to do with whether they could financially afford to take the property back or not. It’s the point that they were allowed that option if they so choosed to do so in order to protect their position with being liable for a loan that is secured against that property.
How many lenders give second mortgages where a buyer defaults and the lender holding the second chooses not to do anything about taking any recourse against the property because they feel it wasn’t financially feasable for them to do so? How would this be any different with a seller?
Think about it. If some prosecutor could successfully charge you criminally because you defaulted on the sellers loan that they had recourse to get the property back, then wouldn’t be the same as charging every borrower that defaulted on a mortgage criminally???
Are you seeing my point in this? It has nothing to do with civil matters. It’s to add protection against being charged for a criminal matter.
It’s not the sellers that will be prosecuting for some criminal matter. It would be the State and/or the feds that go after you.