Posted by James (Ala) on February 07, 2008 at 13:03:34:
It is especially difficult to find a sympathetic court if original sale was done for a nefarious or fraudulent purpose.
Hmmm… Was there a divorce or bankruptcy proceeding that the original seller was a party to at some point in time just after the sale?
James (Ala)
forced buy back - Posted by SCOTT WEST
Posted by SCOTT WEST on January 28, 2008 at 11:34:05:
Is it possible after a good faith deal for the seller to force the buyer to sell a property back to him? The property is in Pa, all parties entered the deal in good faith, there was no formal written sales contract.
Good luck - nothing in writing… - Posted by Rich-CA
Posted by Rich-CA on January 28, 2008 at 18:28:02:
You might as well roll the dice to see how this ends up. With only a verbal agreement you have to prove (1) that an agreement existed and (2) that all parties had substantially the same understanding of what the agreement was. Without those two things, you end up with whatever a judge decides is how the law divides things up based on who had what role in the sale.