Posted by John on May 21, 2004 at 12:51:35:
I have never heard of a court order to stop making payments so a lender would foreclose. In a divorse situation a judge might have ordered a sale of the property with profits split between the two. I would have the wife ask her attorney for clairafication on the order. A foreclosure would ruin credit and most likly have no proceeds and maybe remaining debts to be paid. This does not make sense. Someone does not have correct info here